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Date: Mon, 30 Jun 1997 20:31:50 -0400
From: rhendel@mcs.drexel.edu (Russell Hendel)
Subject: RE: Did David Sin?

Israel Rosenfeld in response to a citation of mine implying that King David
sinned responded with Talmudic quotes that >  >  whomever says that King David
sined erred>  >

I don't dispute the Talmudic quote. But the Talmud simply denies he
committed adultery (see the explanations it the Talmud). Israel will retort:
OK--I agree he didn't commit adultery, but why say he sinned all together

Good question. The answer is because the Bible EXPLICITLY says he sinned:

>  >  That David behaved properly in the eyes of G-d and did not deviate from
>  >  anything that He commanded, all his life, EXCEPT IN THE "WORD" ON
>  >  Uriah the Hitite (Kings 1:15:5)

Note that it does NOT say he sinned with Bath Sheva. It also does not say
he sinned on Uriah but he DID sin with the "WORD=ORDER" on Uriah.

The Zohar(beginning of Leviticus) says that King David sinned in ordering
Uriah murdered. This is an explicit Biblical verse and cannot be
overridden by a talmudic statement(More on this if Israel wants).
I would suggest that any talmudic statements that appear contrary to this
Biblical verse are simply attempts to show that David was not behaving
arbitrarily but had improper perceptions which "led" him to sin.

I hope this clarifies this rather difficlut matter.

Russell Jay Hendel; Ph.d;ASA; rhendel @ mcs drexel edu

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