#*#*#*#*#*#*#*#*#*# (C) Dr Hendel, 2000 *#*#*#*#*#*#*#*#*#*#*#*#*#*
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| (C) Dr Hendel, Summer 2000 |
| http://www.RashiYomi.Com |
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VERSE: Gn19-36a
The verse states >And the two daughters of Lot conceived
from their father<
RASHI in his commentary starts giving a biology lecture on
how most women do not conceive from a first affair but
these girls did.
{LIST}
Rashi was developing the idea that this is the only time
in the Bible where a WHOLE verse is devoted to mentioning
>CONCEIVING<. Usually the Bible says >IN ONE VERSE< >She
CONCEIVED and Gave Birth<. Since this is the only verse
where it mentions conceiving by itself Rashi saw in this
an emphasis on the fact that they conceived. Here is a list
of verses mentioning conceiving *1
==========================================================
VERSE WHO GAVE BIRTH TEXT
======= ============== ====
Gn04-01 Eve She conceived and gave birth
Gn21-02 Sarah She conceived and gave birth
Gn29-32 Leah She conceived and gave birth
Gn30-07 Bilhah She conceived and gave birth
1S1-20 Chana She conceived and gave birth
Gn19-36 Lots daughter She conceived from her father
NOTES
=====
Actually there are 3 other verses (out of about 30) where
it only says SHE CONCEIVED. They are as follows
-Gn16-04 & As soon as Sarah saw that Hagar conceived she
made fun of her
Thus the reason why it says CONCEIVED vs CONCEIVED
AND GAVE BIRTH is obvious
-Gn25-21 And Isaac prayed for her and she finally conceived
Thus the reason why it says CONCEIVED vs CONCEIVED
AND GAVE BIRTH is obvious
-1Ch4-17 And SHE conceived to him ....
-1Ch4-18 But his JEWISH WIFE gave BIRTH to ....
The Radack on 1Ch4-18 interprets the verse as shown
According to Radack the first wife was non jewish
(Pharohs) daughter.
Thus by the Jewish wife it uses the term BIRTH while
by the non jewish wife it uses the term CONCEIVED
The implied insult is clear.
RASHI RULE USED: DOUBLE PARSHAS
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Volume 8 Number 6
#*#*#*#*#*#*#*#*#*# (C) Dr Hendel, 2000 *#*#*#*#*#*#*#*#*#*#*#*#*#*
Volume 8 Number 6