*1 The phrase BROUGHT THE PLAGUE refers to the
acts done prior to the plague coming, such
as throwing dust or waiving the rod. Either
Moses or Aaron did these acts - the list
shows who did what.

*2 Moses was Gods main emissary and hence he
brought the plagues

The list is clear---Moses brought the plagues connected
with HEAVEN but did not bring the plagues connected with
the NILE or with DUST. Why?

Rashi-is-Simple and suggests a
simple answer - the NILE protected Moses as an infant
Ex02-01:04; the DUST covered up the Egyptian that
Moses had killed (Ex02-12)--hence the use of Aaron
vs Moses symbolizes an exaggerated sensitivity to
the feelings of the inanimate
(-Moses did not double cross the river or dust!).

Hopefully we humans learn from this to be sensitive
to people who do us favors.*10

*3 No symbolic act (such as waiving the rod or
throwing dust) was done prior to plagues 4 or 5
I do not know a reason. (Obviously however
the 10th plague- the smiting of the first born
was done by God Himself without any human aid)

For other examples of treating inanimate
objects with sensitivity see

*10 A list of Commandments where inanimate objects
are treated with sensitivity is presented in
- LIST604a
- http://www.Rashiyomi.com/lv20-15a.htm
- http://www.Rashiyomi.com/h17n16.htm

*1 The above ALIGNMENT explains why the Egyptian
witches stated that the plague of lice WAS THE
FINGER OF GOD(Ex08-15a). They recognized God as
a higher power that could things they could not do.

*1 In this example the identically spelled word can mean either
- he walked (past tense)
- walk (Command)

Cf The Grammatical tables in the Ibn Shoshan dictionary
Table 1 presents the conjugations in question.

*2 The words are spelled with the same letters. The minute
vowel difference determines whether it is causative(Helped)
vs active (Good)


*3 The two words have the
- same spelling
- same letters
- differ in placement of accents
Cf Gn29-06a vs Gn29-09,Gn46-26a vs Gn46-27 and
Gn42-21b vs Gn34-27

*4 See Ibn Shoshan Dictionary Tables 6 and 7.
The conjugation of the Biblical root Lamed-Vav-Nun
is LLoon not LLeen which should therefore be interpreted
as a noun (night-stay)

Hence the Rashi on Gn24-23b which uses the word LLeen
------------------------------------------------------
Eliezer used the word LLeen indicating he requested
a one night stay. By contrast Rivkah used the word
LLoon--the verb form--indicating that he could stay
for many nights
------------------------------------------------------

*5 I frequently cite the Ibn Shoshan Dictionary, Volume 5,
the Appendix: This gives a short but comprehensive
set of grammatical tables.

- Table 10, Kal Mode for 1-2-2 verbs: Ve-HaM-Mo-Thi
- Table 6: Hifil Mode for 1-v-3 verbs:Ve-Hay-MaT-Ti

Ve-HaM-Mo-Thi means to DESTROY;
Ve-Hay-MaT-Ti means to kill

Although the meanings are similar the conjugations are
totally different as Rashi is quick to point out.

*6 - KAMATZ-PATACH is a VERB form
- KAMATZ-TZARAY is an ADJECTIVE form
- SEGOL-SEGOL is a NOUN form.
The difference between a VERB and ADJECTIVE is as follows
- The VERB form could denote a one time TRANSIENT activity
- The ADJECTIVE form denotes a PERMANANT attribute
The KAMATZ-TZARAY is adjective form #2 in Ibn Shoshan

Hence
- AFayS Kasef means the MONEY HAS DWINDLED
- KAVAYD LAYV PHAROH means Pharoh was OBSTINATE
- MAYN LESHLAYACH means Pharoh was OBSTINATE about
letting the Jews go.

Perhaps this will clarify. MEMaAYN PHAROH would mean
Pharoh REFUSED, denoting a possibly one-time transient
activity while MaAYN PHAROH means PHAROH was OBSTINATE
(it was part of his personality to always refuse freedom
to the slaves)