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From: rhendel@king.mcs.drexel.edu (Russell Hendel)
Date: Mon, 6 May 1996 15:19:52 -0400
Subject: Correcting Torah Reading On Note Mistakes

It is well known that we do not correct baalay keriah on note mistakes

It is also well known that we do correct baalay keriah on mistakes that
change meaning.

What happens when the above two principles contradict each other.  If a
note mistake blatantly changes the meaning or sense of a verse should
the baal koray be corrected. If not, why not.

This question was inspired by the Posook in last week's Parshah, Emor,
   "Vho, ishah vivsooleha yikach"---And he, a women in her virginity
should take

The traditional cantillations create a pause (or comma) after he.

Suppose instead a person read this verse with say "Merchah, Tipchah,
Merchah sof-poosook" so that the verse read

Vho ishah, vivsooleah yikach---"And (if) he is a woman
(e.g. androginos), (then) a women that is a virgin he should take".

It would seem that the change in cantillations changed the meaning of
the sentence and the question arises as to whether the person should be
corrected and if not why not.

(This question was purely theoretical and did not arise from an actual
case)

Russell Hendel Ph.d. ASA
rhendel @ mcs . drexel . edu