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From: rhendel@mcs.drexel.edu (Russell Hendel)
Date: Mon, 6 Jan 1997 13:24:02 -0500
Subject: 2 Sins of Yissachar: An Addendum

I would like to comment on the rich set of Midrashic reasons given for
the pronunciation of Yissachar (which were nicely summarized by Rabbi
Leiman)

Opening up the Minchath Shai on Gen 30:18 we find that
1) The Remah states: "Yissachar: The whole torah: two sins are written and
   only one is pronounced.."  (Ibn Ezra is cited as concurring also)
2) Summarizing a debate between the Radack and Rav Eliyahu we find that:
   "Because of the difficulty of pronouncing two similar consecutive letters
   (particularly if they are silibants!?) the Hebrew language sometimes
   silences one of them." (Examples are then given)
3) A check with the Konkordance shows that indeed ALL occurrences of
   MCHTZRIM and YISACHAR confirm to this pattern. In other words, it IS
   the DOUBLE SILLABANT (tz,tz or sin,sin) that causes the silencing.

My question then is: Are we "permitted" to use philosophical/midrashic
reasons when the grammar is so clear? And are we permitted, (out of
doubt?), to pronounce the first Yissachar with two sins if the reasons
are so clear.  To augment the question I cite the Rav who once said: "If
you want to really learn Midrash and Rashi you must leave the turbulent
waters of philosophy and go to the placid waters of grammar?" In other
words, why not simply admit that pronouncing one sin follows a simple
grammatical rule, act accordingly and not cite Midrashim in the presence
of clear grammar.

Russell Jay Hendel, rhendel @ mcs drexel edu